| posted on 12.23.2010 at 09:28 PM
Christianity FAQ 6:The Doctrine of Trinity
Article ID : MSS010006
Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew
28:19); does this not prove that the `Doctrine of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated and promulgated by Jesus Christ himself?
With all due respect, we tend to disagree in view of the following compelling evidences:-
1. `Peake's Commentary on the Bible' published since 1919, is universally welcomed and considered to be the standard reference book for the
students of the Bible. Commenting on the above verse it records; "This mission is described in the language of the church and most commentators doubt
that the trinitarian formula was original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does not know of such a formula and describes baptism
as being performed in the name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."
2. Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor of New Testament, writes in his book `For Christ's Sake'; "All but the
most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere else in the New
Testament, and we know from the only evidence available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church did not baptise people using these
words - baptism was "into" or "in" the name of Jesus alone."
3.The above command (authentic or otherwise) does not indicate that the three names mentioned in the formula are or were, "co- equal" in
their status, as well as, were "co-eternal" in the time frame, to conform with the acknowledged `Doctrine of Trinity'.
4. If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one was
"greater or lesser" in status, than why is one called the Father and the other His begotten Son?
5. Did the act of "Begetting" take place? If YES, where was the "Begotten Son" before the act? If NO, why call him the "Begotten
"And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'" (Acts 2:38).
It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have disobeyed the specific command of Jesus Christ for baptising in the three names and baptized them in
the name of Jesus Christ, alone.